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Let's say as a child you develop a taste aversion to dairy products because you have gotten sick from them on multiple occasions. If your memory serves you right, hopefully you have learned to stay away from dairy. But what happens if one day you have dairy by accident and you don't happen to get sick? Does that mean that single experience should remodel the existing memory you already have of dairy-induced discomfort? This example could be applied throughout species - especially since taste aversions are much more imperative to survival of rodents and less complex animals than humans. Anyway...my point being - if memory reorganization occurs each time a long-term memory is retrieved, how drastic does the changed stimulus have to be to alter the existing memory? Does it have to occur more than once? Does it matter how long the memory has been encoded for, or how many times it has previously been retrieved (strength of memory)? It just doesn't seem like it would make evolutionary sense to have all long-term memories susceptible to disruption each time it is retrieved, does it? Would it make more sense to just form new memories in response to new stimuli rather than modify pre-existing ones? Or would that just require more (ugh, don't make me say it) neural plasticity/neurogenesis than our brains are capable of?
It's important to take into consideration that the studies i've read largely deal with fear-conditioned memories. It would be compelling to study and determine whether or not there are differences in the appearance of labile states in other types of memories (e.g. olfactory aversions, conditioned taste aversions, object/social recognition memory, spatial memory). Would it make sense for some of these to be more susceptible to disruptions more or less routinely?
Interesting. I'd say social memories should be more plastic, while taste / smell memories should be less so.
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